Wednesday 11 January 2012

THE PRIMARY OBJECTIVE OF THE CORPORATION: VALUE MAXIMIZATION


The Primary Objective of the Corporation:Value Maximization
 By BRIGHAM

Shareholders arc the owners of a corporation, and they purchase stocks because they want to earn a good return on their investment without undue risk exposure. In most cases, shareholders elect directors, who then hire managers to run the corporation on a day-to-day basis. Because managers are supposed to be working on behalf of shareholders, they should pursue policies that enhance shareholder value. Consequently, throughout this book we operate on the assumption that management’s primary objective is stockholder wealth maximization. 

The market price is the stock price that we observe in the financial markets. We later explain in detail how stock prices are determined, but for now it is enough to say that a company’s market price incorporates the information available to investors. If the market price reflects all relevant information, then the observed price is also the intrinsic, or fundamental, price. However, investors rarely have all relevant information. For example, companies report most major decisions, hut they sometimes withhold selected information to prevent competitors from gaining strategic advantages. 

Unfortunately, 
some managers deliberately mislead investors by taking actions to make their companies appear more valuable than they truly are. Sometimes these actions are illegal, such as those taken by the senior managers at Enron. Sometimes the actions are legal but are taken to push the current market price above its fundamental price in the short term.
For example, suppose a utility’s stock price is equal to its fundamental price of $50 per share. What would happen if the utility substantially reduced its tree—trimming program but didn’t tell investors? This would lower current costs and thus boost current earnings and current cash flow, but it would also lead to major expenditures in the future when falling limbs damage the lines. If investors were told about the major repair costs facing the company, the market price would immediately drop to a new fundamental value of $45. But if investors were kept in the dark, they might misinterpret the higher-than-expected current earnings, and the market price might go up to $52. Investors would eventually understand the situation when the company later incurred large costs to repair the damaged lines; when that happened, the price would fall to its fundamental value of $45. 

Consider this hypothetical sequence of events. A company’s managers deceived investors, and the price rose to $52 when it would have fallen to $45 if not for the deception. Of course, this benefited those who owned the stock at the time of the deception, including managers with stock options. But when the deception came to light, those stockholders who Still owned the stock suffered a significant loss, ending up with stock worth less than its original fundamental value, If the managers cashed in their stock options prior to this, then only the stockholders were hurt by the deception. Because the managers were hired to act in the interests of stockholder, their deception was a breach of their fiduciary responsibility.
In addition, the managers’ deception would damage the company’s reputation, making it harder to raise capital in the future.
Therefore, when we say management’s objective should be to maximize stockholder wealth, we really mean it is to maximize fundamental price of the firm’s common stock, not just the current market price. Firms do, of course, have other objectives; in particular, the managers who make the actual decisions are interested in their own personal satisfaction, in their employees’ welfare, and in the good of their communities and of society at large. Still, for the reasons set forth in the following sections, maximizing intrinsic stock value is the most important objective for most corporations.


Tuesday 29 November 2011


Rules for process Costing
5.       The units of abnormal gain will be reduced in output column & also in equivalent unit column. Always remember that the DOC of Abnormal Gain units are 100%.
6.       Application of FIFO method for WIP inventory valuation
Ø  While preparing statement of Equivalent production assume that the opening WIP units will be computed first by doing the remaining work.
Ø  While computing the value of closing stock/WIP it will be assumed that opening WIP units have been completed first & closing WIP units are out of current inputs.
7.       Application of Weighted Average Method in WIP inventory Valuation
ü  Merge the units of opening WIP with current input completely ignoring the DOC of opening WIP.
ü  While computing cost per equivalent units, merge the cost of opening WIP with current cost.
8.       When to apply FIFO & W.Avg. Method

Method



FIFO :-  % of completion is given in respect of “Opening WIP”


W.Avg. :- When individual cost element of M, L, and O/H is given in respect of “ Op. WIP “
 

Monday 21 November 2011

Important Rules for Process Costing


Important Rules for Process Costing
1.     If the degree of completion ( DOC )of closing stock of WIP is not known , then assume DOC as follows :
a)      Raw Material (RM)  = 100%
b)      Labour & O/H           = 50%

2.     Treatment of Normal Loss units in Statement of Equivalent Production :
The units of normal loss will be shown in output column, but not in equivalent column.

3.     Treatment of Normal Realizable Value or Normal disposal cost of “Normal Loss units “
a.)    The normal realizable value of normal loss units will be reduced from the cost of raw material consumed while computing cost per unit.
b.)    The normal disposal cost of “Normal Loss Units” will be added to the cost of raw material consumed while computing cost per unit.

4.     Treatment of Abnormal loss in statement of Equivalent Production
a.)    The units of abnormal loss will be added in output column & in equivalent units column also.
b.)    Unless otherwise stated , the DOC of Abnormal loss units is taken as 100% in all respects.


          To be continued……………………………………………………

Thursday 10 November 2011

Difference between Marginal Approach & Absorption Approach - Conceptual Understanding

   
MARGINAL APPROACH
ABSORPTION APPROACH
1.     It helps in decision making.
1.     It helps in calculating the Total cost of the Product.
2.    Decision making involves the following types of decisions :-
      a.)  Accepting or Rejecting the
          offer.
      b.)  Minimum Price Quotation.
      c.)  How much Quantity of each
          product should be produced &
          sold to recover fixed cost.

Hence we can say that entire burden of Fixed cost to be charged with the entire quantity sold, therefore there will not be any volume variance.
2.    In order to calculate Total cost, Fixed cost should be apportioned on every product with the application of “Recovery Rate” .

Hence If Actual Output (Result) differs from Budgeted output (result), Then volume variance exists.
3.    In this approach Fixed cost is termed as Periodical cost, it has no relationship with individual Product.
3.    Fixed cost is termed as Product cost, hence in this approach Fixed cost per unit is calculated.
4.    Marginal Technique is applied either before commencement of the production or at the end of the period.
4.    Absorption Approach is applied during the production and at the end of the period.

Monday 7 November 2011

Solution of Cost & FM - Nov 2011


1.      Cost & Financial Management  ( Solution )
Novemeber 2011
                                                          Prepared By
                                                                                        CA. ARVIND SINGHAL


(a)  1.       (a)  (i) Margin of Safety = actual Sales – Break even sales
                                           Actual Sales

40%=  5 lakhs- BES
                 5 lakh

Break even sales =3 lakhs.


(ii)  Break Even sales =    Fixed cost
                                              Pv ratio
        
                         3 lakh =  Fixed cost           
                                                50%
                          Fixed cost = 1.5 lakh


 Required Sales =   Fixed Expenses + .10 x
                                          Pv ratio

                      x           =  1.5 lakh +.10x
                                           0 .50
                      X =  3.75 lakh

Sales in units  =  375000/1000
                         = 375 units


1.       (b) (i) Rowan system = time taken*rate per hour +    time saved   *time taken* rate per hour
                                                                                            Time allowed

 = 120 hours *(10+30/8) +    30     *120* (10+30/8)
                                                  150
=  Rs. 1980


(ii)  Efficiency level =  Time allowed
                                         Time Taken

                                   =   150/120
                                   = 125 %

Basic wage = 120* (10+30/8)
                     = Rs. 1650

Bonus  =  20 % * 1650 + 25% *1650
               = Rs. 742.50

1.       ( c )   incremental Gain = 120000*15%
                                       = 18000

    Investment in Debtors = 102000*1.5/12
                                             = 12750


Incremental Cost
 Bad Debts =  10%*120000 = 12000
 Interest loss = 12750*   40%          
                                          1-.30
                           =7286
Total incremental Cost = 12000+7286
                                          = 19286

Incremental loss = 19286-18000
                             = 1286


1.       (d)  ke = EPS/MPS
            =  4/40
             = 10%

OR

Ke = D1/P +G
   = 4*25%/40+ .08
=  10.50%


Kd = upto 2 lakh = 10% (1-.30)
        = 7%
      = Beyond 2 lakh = 15 % (1-.30)
       =10.50%

WACC = 10%*6/10+7%*2/10+10.50%*2/10
              = 9.5%

Note :- We have given preference to the Gordon Model (for Ke ) for computing the WACC, alternatively we can also take the avg of both Ke and then can calculate WACC by taking that avg. Ke.

2 . (a)   Actual overhead incurred =  Rs 79 lakh

              Absorbed overhead     = 1.50 lakh days *  Rs  50
                                                       = 75

Under absorbed overhead = 79-75 = 4 lakh

Underabsorbed overhead due to defective planning = 4 lakh *60%
                                                                                                = 2.40 lakh

These overhead will be charged to costing P & L account.

Overhead due to increased cost = 4-2.40
                                                           = 1.60 lakh

These overhead will be charged through the supplementary rate
            Supplementary rate =   Overhead
                                                 Equi. Prod.

=                                       1.60 lakh                                            
         (30000+5000+ 10000*.50)

=  Rs 4 per unit.


Therefore amount chargeable to
1.       Cost of sales = 30000*4 = 120000
2.       Closing stock = 5000*4 = 20000
3.       WIP = 10000*50%*4 = 20000

2.       (b) (i)  Liquid Asset = CA – stock  - prepaid expenses
                                   =3050000-2160000-10000
                          = 880000

Liquid Liability =  current liab – bank od
                           = 1000000

Quick Ratio  = 880000/1000000
                         = 0.88

(ii)  Debt – equity Ratio = 1600000/(2000000+800000)
                                           =0.5714


(iii) Return on capital employed  =  EBIT / capital employed

Where,  EBIt= 120000

               Capital employed = 1600000+2000000+800000
                                               = 4400000

Ratio will be = 120000/4400000
                        =27.27 %


(iv)  Avg collection period =   Avg. debtors     * 360 days
                                                     Cr sales
                                                                     = 360 days * 400000/(4000000*80%)
                                                                       =45 days.

3.       (a)      input                  detail                output            mat 1                   Lab                

       8000
       Op wip



     182000         
       Input



     Nor. loss
      15200



    Abno effectives
     (1200)
      100%   (1200)
      100%    (1200)






      Output trfd
     158000
     158000 
      158000

      cl. wip
      18000
      100%    18000
      70%   12600
      190000
         total
      190000
     174800
     169400


  Statement of cost per unit
M 1 =  63900+756900-15200*8        = 4
                      174800

Lab & o/h =  10800+5400+328000+164000    = 3
                          169400


Statement of valuation
1.       Abnormal effectives =  1200*( 4+3 )  =  8400
2.       Closing WIP =  M1=           4*18000  = 72000
                          Lab & ov = 12600*3 = 37800    109800
3.       Output Trfd = 158000* (4+3 ) = 11,06,000


pr                                                              Process A/C
      To op wip
        8000  
      80100 
      By nor loss
       15200
       121600
      To mat intro
       182000
       756900



      To lab

      328000
      By next process
       158000
       1106000
      To overhead

      164000






       By cl. wip
       18000
        109800
     To abno. eff
      1200
       8400

















3.       (b)   Total asset turnover ratio = sales / total asset
                                    2.5 = sales / 4800000
                                 Sales = 1,20,00,000

Now           sales =  1,20,00,000
          VC @ 60% = 72,00,000

Contribution     =  48,00,000
(-) FC                    =28,00,000
EBIT                         20,00,000
(-) intt.                    4,20,000
EBT                          15,80,000
(-) tax @ 30%   4,74,000
EAT                     11,06,000

No. of share   100000

EPS      =  Rs. 11.06  

(ii) combined leverage  =  4800000/1580000
                                          = 3.04

4.       (a)  Calculation of operating cycle :-

Raw material = avg raw material          *365
                             Raw mat consumed
                         =  (180000+200000)/2             *     365     
                             180000+1100000-200000
                          = 64 days

WIP    =  Avg WIp        *   365      
               Work Cost

           =  (60000+100000)/2                                                 *365
              (60000+1080000+300000+200000-100000)
        
           = 80000 / 1540000   *365    =  19 days


Finished Goods  = Avg stock                *  365         
                                Cost of goods sold

                           = (260000+300000)/2                               *365
                              (260000+1540000+175000-300000)
                        
                            = 280000/1675000     *365   = 61 days

Debotors  = Avg debtors / credit sales  *365 
                  = (150000+200000)/2   *365
                       2000000
                   = 32 days


Creditors = avg creditors / cr purchase *365
                   =  (200000+240000)/2         *365
                            1100000   
                  = 73 days

Net operating cycle  = 64+19+61+32-73
                                       =103 days

4.       (b) do yourself.

6.       (a)  Avg Rate of Return = Avg income / avg. investment   *100
Avg income = cash flow – dep – tax

Machine  X
Cash outflow =7000+6000+12000 =  25000 p.a.

Cash inflow = 10000+90000 = 1,00,000 p.a.

Cash flow = 100000-25000 = 75000 p.a.

Dep   =150000/5   =  30000 p.a.

Cash flow after Tax = (75000 -30000)* (1-.30)  =   31500 p.a.
    & dep.

ARR  =  31500/150000  *100   =  21 %

Similarly for Machine Y

ARR  =  42000/240000  *100   =  17.50 %


Therefore Machine X should be purchased.
(ii )  Present value Index method  =   PV of Cash Inflow
                                                                 PV of cash outflow
Machine X
PV of cash inflow  = 100000*3.79  + 30000*30% + 25000*30%  = 395500
PV of Cash outflow = 150000 + 25000* 3.79 + 100000*30%  = 274750

PI  =  395500/274750  = 1.4394


Machine Y
PV of cash Inflow  =135000*4.354 +40000*30% + 35000*30%  =610290

PV of Cash Outflow  = 240000+ 35000*4.354+135000*30%      =432890

PI = 610290/432890  =  1.4098

Therefore on the basis of PI value Machine x is preferable.


(b) 

Budget



Standard


Actual

     Mat
     10 kg
       10
     100
    48000
      10
    480000
     50000 kg
      10.5
      525000
      lab
      6 hrs
      5.50   
      33
    28800
     5.50
    158400
     31000 hrs
       5
      155000
     Var  o/h
       6 hrs
       10
      60
    28800
      10
    288000
       31000 hrs
      9.4516
       293000










                    1 unit                                           4800 units                                      4800 units


Material cost variance = Standard cost  -  actual cost
                                          = 480000-525000
                                           = 45000 A
Labour Cost Variance  = 158400-155000  = 3400 F

Variable oh variance  = 288000-293000 =  5000 A

Fixed overhead cost variance  =  Recovered – actual
                                                        =  (450000/30000)*(4800*6) – 470000
                                                         = Rs. 38000 A



Your Suggestion, Critics and arguments are pleasurely Welcomed.

Sincere efforts have been made to avoid any mistake , but if You

found any such one then that is deeply regretted.